Re: [NTLK] OT: Whence "genitive s" (='s)? (Was: AUGUST UPDAT

From: scOtty teCHnoiR (tick0001_at_algonquincollege.com)
Date: Sat Aug 03 2002 - 11:12:54 EDT


eric engle wrote:

>So, how did that apostrophe creep in? Since "Eric's
>thoughts" could translate into "The thoughts of Eric"
>I presume that the norman rulers and their descendants
>imposed a contraction where none would ever exist in
>German.
>
>
>
first i thought i was dyslexic, so i had to read this twice... are you
talking about the Normans-- or the Romans ?? i would think the latter
would have had more of a hand in "imposing" language throughout europe.
French, german, english, even russian [perhaps indirectly] were all
latinized somewhat were they not?

>>st

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