scOtty teCHnoiR (tick0001_at_algonquincollege.com) wrote:
> first i thought i was dyslexic, so i had to read this twice... are you
> talking about the Normans-- or the Romans ?? i would think the latter
> would have had more of a hand in "imposing" language throughout europe.
> French, german, english, even russian [perhaps indirectly] were all
> latinized somewhat were they not?
French didn't need to be latinized as it was directly derived from Latin.
German and Russian were never latinized to any extent, except by adopting
loan words from Latin or French. English, on the other hand, owes a
considerable part of its vocabulary from French, the language of the
Norman conquerors. Prior to 1066, English used to be a purely Germanic
language.
- Michael
Michael J. Hussmann
E-mail: michael_at_michael-hussmann.de
WWW: http://michael-hussmann.de
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